A healthy 41-year-old man presents to your office complaining of blood on the toilet paper after each bowel movement for the past 6 months. On anoscopy, grade II internal hemorrhoids with stigmata of bleeding are found. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

There's more to see -- the rest of this topic is available only to subscribers.

All content is protected by copyright and may not be used for AI model training or other unauthorized purposes.