Crohn’s Disease: Surgical Management [sounds like]
8 results
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Benign Disease- A 56-year-old man with a remote history of uncomplicated sigmoid diverticulitis presents with pneumaturia, fecaluria, and frequent urinary tract infections. Colonoscopy showed sigmoid diverticulosis. Computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen and pelvis showed air in the bladder. Cystoscopy showed 1.5 cm defect in the bladder. The best next step in the management of this patient is
- A 30-year-old patient with a history of ileal Crohn’s disease undergoes drainage of a perirectal abscess with placement of seton. Flexible sigmoidoscopy at the time shows proctitis. The most appropriate next treatment is
- A 43-year-old woman presents to the emergency room with 24 hours of nausea, vomiting, and bloating. She has history of Crohn’s disease with no prior surgery and is currently not taking any medications. She smokes one pack of cigarettes per day. Computed tomography (CT) is obtained (see figure below). Magnetic resonance enterography (MRE) shows mucosal edema and hyperenhancement. She is treated with intravenous (IV) fluid resuscitation, bowel rest, and nasogastric decompression. Inpatient colonoscopy performed 4 days later demonstrates inflamed ileal mucosa and narrowed lumen. What is the best next step in this patient’s management?
- A 23-year-old woman with a longstanding history of fistulizing Crohn’s disease reports diarrhea and abdominal pain. Computed tomography (CT) enterography shows an ileosigmoid fistula. After medical optimization, the fistula persists. Sigmoid colon mucosa is unremarkable on colonoscpy. What is the best next step in management?
- A 33-year-old woman has ileal Crohn’s disease refractory to medical management. With respect to postoperative recurrence, which of the following strategies is recommended?
- Anorectal Disease
- Perioperative
- Malignancy