Urinary Complications
8 results
1 - 8
Anorectal Disease- A 46-year-old man presents to your office with rectal bleeding associated with bowel movements and prolapse of tissue from his anus that spontaneously reduces. Recent colonoscopy demonstrated moderate internal hemorrhoids and a 3-mm tubular adenoma in the sigmoid colon removed with cold forceps. A single rubber band ligation was performed during this procedure. Two days later, he presents to the emergency department with a fever of 102°C, pelvic pain, and urinary retention. The most definitive treatment is
- A 65-year-old patient undergoes rubber band ligation of two hemorrhoid columns on the same day in the office. Three days later the patient calls to report extreme anal pain, fevers, and urinary retention. Which of the following is the best next step for this patient?
- A 40-year-old man presents to the emergency department 4 days after band ligation of a grade 2 internal hemorrhoid with a fever and reports of urinary retention. On evaluation, vital signs indicate temperature 102.2 °F, heart rate of 102 beats per minute, and blood pressure of 114/80 mmHg. Laboratory evaluation is significant for a white blood cell count of 17,000. Physical examination reveals significant anorectal tenderness and swelling. Based on these findings, the best next step in management is
- Perioperative
- A 55-year-old man undergoes a low anterior resection without diverting ileostomy for an T2N0M0 rectal cancer with anastomosis 5 cm from the anal verge. On postoperative day 10, he presents to the emergency department with low abdominal pain and bloating, decreased bowel function, urinary hesitancy, and low-grade fever. On examination, his heart rate is 90, blood pressure is 110/55 mmHg, and temperature is 100.5 °C. He has some localized low abdominal tenderness. His white blood cell count is 15. Computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen and pelvis with oral, intravenous (IV), and rectal contrast shows a 5-cm perianastomotic abscess with some stranding but no free air. What is the best next step in the management of this patient?
- A 45-year-old man with history of rectal cancer found at 5 cm from the dentate line, underwent low anterior resection. Foley catheter was placed without complication at the start of the surgery. The urine output is appropriate and clear. When should the foley catheter be removed?
- A 77-year-old man has recently undergone a low anterior resection with diverting loop ileostomy for rectal cancer after total neoadjuvant therapy. His hospital course was routine, and he was sent home on postoperative day 4. The patient presents back to the clinic 3 weeks after the index operation. He reports urinary retention, pelvic pain, and bloating. You note an overall failure to thrive. Which test is the most likely to correctly diagnose this patient’s problem?
- Benign Disease
- Pelvic Floor