Course Complete
7 results
1 - 7
Benign Disease- Malignancy
- A 56-year-old man presents to the office with biopsy-proven midrectal adenocarcinoma on colonoscopy. Rigid sigmoidoscopy in the office shows a 5-cm circumferential mass 8 cm from the anal verge. Staging evaluation with computed tomography of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis and magnetic resonance imaging of the pelvis preoperatively demonstrates a T3N1M0 cancer. What is the next step in management for this patient?
- A 56-year-old woman presents for evaluation of increasing abdominal girth, fullness, and abdominal pain. On examination, her abdomen is distended and she has had progressive weight loss of 50 lbs over the last 1 year. Computed tomography is performed (Figure). Her gynecologic examination and transvaginal ultrasonography findings are normal. Findings of colonoscopy are unremarkable. What is the best step in management?
- A 65-year-old man undergoes low anterior resection for an anterior rectal cancer requiring excision of Denonvilliers fascia as a component of the surgical margin. He develops erectile dysfunction postoperatively. Which nerves were most likely to have been damaged during the course of dissection?
- Anorectal Disease
- A 56-year-old man who is HIV positive and admits to anal intercourse complains of rectal pain and a tingling sensation in the perianal area. On external examination, he has perianal ulcerations. Anoscopy shows friable, inflamed rectal mucosa. What is the most likely organism?
- A 28-year-old woman with perianal Crohn’s disease is referred for evaluation for perianal itching. On examination, she has large bilateral anal skin tags that are painless to palpation. What is the most appropriate treatment?
- Pelvic Floor