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ASCRS Textbook of Colon and Rectal SurgeryASCRS Textbook of Colon and Rectal Surgery
Fundamentals of Rectal Cancer SurgeryFundamentals of Rectal Cancer Surgery
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  • ASCRS Question BankBenign Disease
    • A 30-year-old woman with a history of perianal Crohn’s disease has had a seton in place for transsphincteric fistula for the past 2 months. She is also taking infliximab for medical management of her Crohn’s disease with no active proctitis seen on recent endoscopy. Ultrasonography shows 50% involvement of the sphincter complex with no undrained abscess or high blind tracts. What is the most appropriate management approach for her fistula?
    • An 85-year-old man presents to your office with complaints of intermittent rectal bleeding. His history is notable for prostate cancer treated with external beam radiation. Sigmoidoscopy reveals mucosal pallor, superficial ulceration, and telangiectasias in the distal rectum, and a biopsy specimen is obtained from the anterior rectal wall. Two weeks later, the patient develops pelvic pain, fever, and a watery rectal discharge that occurs while voiding. This presentation is most concerning for:
  • ASCRS Question BankAnorectal Disease
    • A 27-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of fevers, chills, and rectal pain. Physical examination demonstrates a normal perianal region without erythema or fluctuance. Computed tomography (CT) demonstrates a 5-cm supralevator fluid collection and no other intra-abdominal pathology. What is the next appropriate step?
  • 1 - 3 of 3 records
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