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Laparoscopic Sigmoid Resection for Diverticulitis
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  • ASCRS Question BankBenign Disease
    • A 62-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute-onset left lower quadrant abdominal pain. He is mildly tachycardic but is otherwise hemodynamically stable. On abdominal examination, he has diffuse peritonitis. Laparoscopy reveals sigmoid diverticulitis with purulent fluid throughout the abdomen without fecal contamination. What is the best next step in management?
    • A 53-year-old male renal transplant recipient receiving tacrolimus and prednisone presents with acute sigmoid diverticulitis with specks of free air and a 5-cm pelvic abscess which is not amenable to percutaneous drainage. His vital signs are a temperature of 102.0°F (38.9°C), heart rate 105 beats/min, blood pressure 110/80 mm Hg, and white blood cell count 18,000/µL (18109/L). The best next step in management is:
  • ASCRS Question BankPerioperative
    • You perform an elective sigmoid resection for diverticulitis in a 53-year-old man. Which medication is most effective in reducing postoperative ileus and length of stay?
  • 1 - 3 of 3 records
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