Preoperative Staging
9 results
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Malignancy- A 60-year-old man presents for his postoperative visit 1 month after colon resection for stage II adenocarcinoma. Preoperative colonoscopy was otherwise unremarkable. When should surveillance colonoscopy be performed?
- A 68-year-old man is diagnosed with a 2.5-cm adenocarcinoma of the ascending colon on colonoscopy. His carcinoembryonic antigen level is 1.5. What is the next step in management?
- A 57-year-old man is taken to the operating room for resection of a distal transverse colon cancer. On exploration, you note direct extension of the mass to the posterior gastric body. What is the next step in management?
- A 64-year-old woman underwent laparoscopic sigmoid colectomy for adenocarcinoma. Staging workup was negative for distant metastases. Preoperative carcinoembryonic antigen level was 4.1 ng/mL (4.1 μg/L). Proximal, distal, and radial margins were negative. Which of the following findings on final pathology confers the poorest prognosis?
- A 56-year-old man presents to the office with biopsy-proven midrectal adenocarcinoma on colonoscopy. Rigid sigmoidoscopy in the office shows a 5-cm circumferential mass 8 cm from the anal verge. Staging evaluation with computed tomography of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis and magnetic resonance imaging of the pelvis preoperatively demonstrates a T3N1M0 cancer. What is the next step in management for this patient?
- A 54-year-old man presents to your office 1 year after undergoing sigmoid resection for T3N0 colon cancer. In addition to carcinoembryonic antigen, what surveillance approach do you recommend?
- A 57-year-old man is found to have a submucosal mass in the distal rectum on colonoscopy. Biopsy reveals spindle cells which stain positive for CD117 on immunohistochemistry. The lesion is posterior and 5 cm from the anal verge on rigid proctoscopy. Magnetic resonance imaging measures the size of the lesion as 1.3 cm with extension into the muscularis propria. What is the appropriate treatment?
- Benign Disease
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