Question 10
8 results
1 - 8
question 25- Miscellaneous
- Anorectal Disease
- A 55-year-old woman with breast cancer receiving chemotherapy presents to the emergency department with perianal pain and fever. Examination reveals tenderness and induration over the left buttock but no fluctuance. Computed tomography reveals left perianal phlegmonous changes and 0.5-cm fluid collection questionable for abscess. The white blood cell count is 1,800/μL (1.8×109/L), platelet count is 42×103/μL (42×109/L), and absolute neutrophil count is 486. What is the best next management option?
- A 35-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-year history of mucopurulent drainage from multiple sinus tracts on the perineum. All workup for inflammatory bowel disease has negative results. Physical examination reveals multiple interconnected sinus tracts. Symptoms persist despite 6-month treatment with antibiotics. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in treatment?
- Pelvic Floor
- Benign Disease
- A 53-year-old male renal transplant recipient receiving tacrolimus and prednisone presents with acute sigmoid diverticulitis with specks of free air and a 5-cm pelvic abscess which is not amenable to percutaneous drainage. His vital signs are a temperature of 102.0°F (38.9°C), heart rate 105 beats/min, blood pressure 110/80 mm Hg, and white blood cell count 18,000/µL (18109/L). The best next step in management is:
- A 75-year-old man presents with a 1-week history of progressive abdominal distention and a 2-day history of obstipation. He is afebrile and his vital signs are within normal limits. On examination, he has massive abdominal distention and there is tympany to percussion, but no signs of peritonitis. Computed tomography reveals a large bowel obstruction with a whirl sign on the left side of the abdomen. There are no signs of bowel ischemia or perforation. What is the best next step in management?
- Malignancy