ASCRS U | Question 16

Question 16

3 results

1 - 3

Anorectal Disease
- A 35-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-year history of mucopurulent drainage from multiple sinus tracts on the perineum. All workup for inflammatory bowel disease has negative results. Physical examination reveals multiple interconnected sinus tracts. Symptoms persist despite 6-month treatment with antibiotics. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in treatment?
Benign Disease
- A 53-year-old male renal transplant recipient receiving tacrolimus and prednisone presents with acute sigmoid diverticulitis with specks of free air and a 5-cm pelvic abscess which is not amenable to percutaneous drainage. His vital signs are a temperature of 102.0°F (38.9°C), heart rate 105 beats/min, blood pressure 110/80 mm Hg, and white blood cell count 18,000/µL (18109/L). The best next step in management is:
Malignancy
- A 53-year-old man has a 2-cm peripheral lung lesion on surveillance computed tomography of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis 3 years after undergoing a low anterior resection for a pT3N0 rectal cancer. No other lesion is found. Multidisciplinary evaluation concludes that this is a colorectal metastasis. What is the best treatment recommendation for this patient?
1 - 3 of 3 records

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