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  • ASCRS Question BankAnorectal Disease
    • A 55-year-old woman with breast cancer receiving chemotherapy presents to the emergency department with perianal pain and fever. Examination reveals tenderness and induration over the left buttock but no fluctuance. Computed tomography reveals left perianal phlegmonous changes and 0.5-cm fluid collection questionable for abscess. The white blood cell count is 1,800/μL (1.8×109/L), platelet count is 42×103/μL (42×109/L), and absolute neutrophil count is 486. What is the best next management option?
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