Question 6
5 results
1 - 5
Anorectal Disease- Perioperative
- Benign Disease
- Pelvic Floor
- A 59-year-old woman presents with full-thickness rectal prolapse 6 years after sigmoid resection and rectopexy. She complains of significant discomfort and fecal urgency. Dynamic magnetic resonance imaging defecography demonstrates full-thickness rectal prolapse without anterior or middle compartment involvement. Which of the following procedures is contraindicated in the management of this patient’s rectal prolapse?
- A 35-year-old woman experiences a fourth-degree obstetric injury involving the anal sphincter complex and subsequently develops fecal incontinence. Her symptoms persist more than 6 months after childbirth. Endoanal ultrasonography reveals a 120-degree distal internal and external sphincter anterior defect. She is taken to surgery for overlapping sphincteroplasty. What is associated with mobilization of the sphincter beyond 180 degrees?