Rectal Cancer: Local Excision [sounds like]
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Rectal Cancer: Local Excision- Key Concepts
- Techniques
- Complications
- Oncologic Results
- Local Excision and Adjuvant Therapy
- Neoadjuvant Therapy and Local Excision
- Quality of Life
- Salvage Surgery
- Conclusion
- References
- Introduction
- Patient Selection
- T1N0
- Predicting Lymph Node Metastasis
- Depth of Invasion
- Lymphovascular Invasion and Poor Differentiation
- Tumor Budding
- T2
Local Excision- Colorectal Cancer: Postoperative Adjuvant Therapy and Surveillance
Management of Rectal Cancer (2020)
Malignancy- A 75-year-old woman underwent a transanal excision of a cT1N0M0 rectal cancer. The final pathology was T1 with negative margins and no aggressive features. What is the appropriate endoscopic surveillance regimen?
- A 56-year-old man presents to the office with biopsy-proven midrectal adenocarcinoma on colonoscopy. Rigid sigmoidoscopy in the office shows a 5-cm circumferential mass 8 cm from the anal verge. Staging evaluation with computed tomography of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis and magnetic resonance imaging of the pelvis preoperatively demonstrates a T3N1M0 cancer. What is the next step in management for this patient?
- A 62-year-old man was found to have 1-cm posterior rectal lesion that is 3 cm from the anal verge. Histopathologic findings are consistent with a well-differentiated adenocarcinoma without lymphovascular or perineural invasion. Magnetic resonance imaging shows that the tumor is limited to the submucosa and there are no suspicious mesorectal lymph nodes. Metastatic workup uncovers no findings. What is the most appropriate management?
- A 53-year-old man is diagnosed with rectal adenocarcinoma 7 cm from the anal verge. Preoperative pelvic magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) demonstrates a threatened circumferential radial margin. After total neoadjuvant chemoradiation, a repeat MRI demonstrates a persistently threatened radial margin. Which of the following adjuncts should be considered in operative planning for this patient?
- A 68-year-old man with a history of a hemorrhoidectomy and fecal urgency presents with a T3n1m0 rectal cancer 5 cm from the anal verge. He has no family history of colorectal cancer. What is the most important consideration when counseling the patient about his surgical treatment options?
- Anal Cancer
Malignancy- A 62-year-old woman presents to the office with a 1-month history of rectal pain, bleeding, and perianal mass. On digital rectal examination and anoscopy, a 3-cm firm mass is noted at the left lateral anal canal. Inguinal examination is unremarkable. Biopsy of the mass shows moderately differentiated squamous cell carcinoma. Staging computed tomography (CT) of the chest and abdomen and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the pelvis demonstrate a T2N1M0 tumor. What is the best next step in her management?
- A 61-year-old man is found to have a 2-cm mass in the mid-rectum (8 cm from the anal verge) on diagnostic colonoscopy. Biopsy reveals moderately differentiated adenocarcinoma. Computed tomography (CT) reveals no evidence of metastatic disease, and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) demonstrates a cT3, node-negative cancer. After presentation at a multidisciplinary tumor board, the patient agrees to total neoadjuvant therapy. The patient has a complete clinical response to treatment and opts for close radiologic and endoscopic surveillance in an effort to avoid surgery. On a surveillance proctoscopy 6 months after treatment, the patient is found to have a 7-mm recurrence at the original cancer site. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
- A 45-year-old man undergoes a screening colonoscopy, which shows a 1.5-cm polyp in the rectum located 5 cm from the anal verge. Biopsy reveals well-differentiated invasive adenocarcinoma without lymphovascular invasion, perineural innovation, or tumor budding. Staging computed tomography (CT) does not show any evidence of metastatic disease, and his carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level is normal. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the pelvis reveals the polyp to be a T-1 lesion without any evidence of lymph node metastasis. What is the most appropriate next step in treatment?
- A 57-year-old man undergoes total neoadjuvant therapy (TNT) for management of a cT3N1M0 rectal cancer. After completion of both chemotherapy/radiotherapy and consolidation chemotherapy, the presence of complete clinical response to treatment is assessed by
- Which technical/surgical factor during proctectomy most influences the risk of local recurrence?
- Indications for LAR Versus Intersphincteric Resection Versus APR
- Proctectomy for Rectal Cancer
- Rectal Cancer: Neoadjuvant Therapy
- Tailored Mesorectal Excision
- Rationale for Multimodality Therapy
- Management of Local Recurrences
- Rectal Cancer: Nonoperative Management
- Abdominoperineal Resection
- Locally Recurrent Rectal Cancer
- Management of Rectal Cancer 2023 Supplement (2023)
- Surveillance After Rectal Cancer Treatment
- Rectal Cancer Pathology Assessment
- Colorectal Cancer: Preoperative Evaluation and Staging
- Indications for Preoperative Neoadjuvant Therapy
- Preoperative Staging
- About ASCRS Textbook of Colon and Rectal Surgery
- Indications for Extended Resection
- Considerations for Geriatric Patients Undergoing Colorectal Surgery
- Colorectal Cancer: Minimally Invasive Surgery
- Role of Multidisciplinary Tumor Board
- Surveillance and Survivorship Care of Patients After Curative Treatment of Colon and Rectal Cancer (2021)
- Bowel Transection and Anastomosis
- Anal Fissure and Anal Stenosis
- Minimally Invasive Complete Mesocolic Excision with Extended Lymphadenectomy for Colon Cancer