0

A 27-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of fevers, chills, and rectal pain. Physical examination demonstrates a normal perianal region without erythema or fluctuance. Computed tomography (CT) demonstrates a 5-cm supralevator fluid collection and no other intra-abdominal pathology. What is the next appropriate step?

There's more to see -- the rest of this topic is available only to subscribers.