A 56-year-old man presents with a 2-cm rectal cancer at 6 cm from the anal verge. Transrectal ultrasound reveals a T1N0 lesion. Biopsy demonstrates a well differentiated adenocarcinoma with no lymphovascular invasion. The patient wishes to avoid a radical resection. What is the MOST appropriate treatment option for this patient?
There's more to see -- the rest of this topic is available only to subscribers.
"Post-Test 34." Fundamentals of Rectal Cancer Surgery, ASCRS U, www.ascrsu.com/ascrs/view/Fundamentals-of-Rectal-Cancer-Surgery/2831061/all/Post_Test_34. Accessed 08 June 2023.
Post-Test 34. Fundamentals of Rectal Cancer Surgery. https://www.ascrsu.com/ascrs/view/Fundamentals-of-Rectal-Cancer-Surgery/2831061/all/Post_Test_34. Accessed June 8, 2023.
Post-Test 34. In Fundamentals of Rectal Cancer Surgery https://www.ascrsu.com/ascrs/view/Fundamentals-of-Rectal-Cancer-Surgery/2831061/all/Post_Test_34
Post-Test 34 [Internet]. In: Fundamentals of Rectal Cancer Surgery. [cited 2023 June 08]. Available from: https://www.ascrsu.com/ascrs/view/Fundamentals-of-Rectal-Cancer-Surgery/2831061/all/Post_Test_34.
* Article titles in AMA citation format should be in sentence-case
TY - ELEC T1 - Post-Test 34 ID - 2831061 BT - Fundamentals of Rectal Cancer Surgery UR - https://www.ascrsu.com/ascrs/view/Fundamentals-of-Rectal-Cancer-Surgery/2831061/all/Post_Test_34 DB - ASCRS U DP - Unbound Medicine ER -